08-08-2008, 06:56 AM
I'm confused.
If jc said " For I have not come to call the righteous, but the sinners.", then to me he is saying that there ARE righteous people and at that time there WERE righteous people.
If that is the case, they were righteous BEFORE jc arrived. How can that be? I thought xtians believe you cannot attain righteousness yourself. Did they lose their righteousness when jc was born to only gain it back if they believed in jc?
If jc said " For I have not come to call the righteous, but the sinners.", then to me he is saying that there ARE righteous people and at that time there WERE righteous people.
If that is the case, they were righteous BEFORE jc arrived. How can that be? I thought xtians believe you cannot attain righteousness yourself. Did they lose their righteousness when jc was born to only gain it back if they believed in jc?