09-03-2008, 10:38 PM
The "Name" in Matthew 28:19
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part 2) * The use of name (onoma) here is a common one in the Septuagint and the papyri for power or authority. For the use of eiß with onoma in the sense here employed, not meaning into, see Matthew 10:41ff. (cf. also Matthew 12:41). -- Robertson, A.T. "Commentary on Matthew 28:19". "Robertson's Word Pictures of the New Testament".
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/...dPictures/ rwp.cgi?book=mt&chapter=028&verse=019.
Broadman Press 1932,33, Renewal 1960.
However, we note that the disciples never used this formula when baptizing, but they simply baptized "in the name of Jesus." (Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:48) Does this mean that Jesus is the Father, the Son and the holy spirit? Some have so claimed, but this idea has to be read into these scriptures. Jesus is the Son and is always represented as the Son of God as distinct from his God of whom he is the Son all through the New Testament. But the question does remain as to why the disciples baptized "in the name of Jesus", when he said to baptize in the name of the Father, and the of the Son and of the holy spirit.
There are many scholars, both trinitarian and non-trinitarian, who claim that Matthew 28:19 has been changed from what Jesus originally said. It is claimed that Jesus originally told his disciples to baptise "in my name", not in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Noting that Eusebius, who had copies of earlier manuscripts that no longer exist, cites Matthew 28:19 eighteen times always as: "Go and make disciples of all nations in my name," without the mention of "the name" of the Father, and of the Son, and of the holy spirit, some have concluded that Matthew 28:19, as it has come to us, contains a textual corruption.
For instance, in his *Demonstratio Evangelica*, Eusebius gives this testmony concerning the commission of Matthew 28:19 (col. 240, p. 136):
For he did not enjoin them 'to make disciples of all nations' simply and without qualification, but with the essential addition 'in his name.' For so great was the virtue attached to his appellation that the Apostle says, God bestowed on him the name above every name, that in the name of Jesus every knee shall bow of things in heaven and on earth and under the earth. It was right therefore that he should emphasize the virtue of the power residing in his name but hidden from the many, and therefore say to his Apostles, Go ye and make disciples of all nations in my name.
go to part 3.
SOME BIBLE STUDENT DID SEND ME THIS ARTICLE ?
WHAT DO YOU MAKE ABOUT THIS ?
part 2) * The use of name (onoma) here is a common one in the Septuagint and the papyri for power or authority. For the use of eiß with onoma in the sense here employed, not meaning into, see Matthew 10:41ff. (cf. also Matthew 12:41). -- Robertson, A.T. "Commentary on Matthew 28:19". "Robertson's Word Pictures of the New Testament".
http://bible.crosswalk.com/Commentaries/...dPictures/ rwp.cgi?book=mt&chapter=028&verse=019.
Broadman Press 1932,33, Renewal 1960.
However, we note that the disciples never used this formula when baptizing, but they simply baptized "in the name of Jesus." (Acts 2:38; 8:16; 10:48) Does this mean that Jesus is the Father, the Son and the holy spirit? Some have so claimed, but this idea has to be read into these scriptures. Jesus is the Son and is always represented as the Son of God as distinct from his God of whom he is the Son all through the New Testament. But the question does remain as to why the disciples baptized "in the name of Jesus", when he said to baptize in the name of the Father, and the of the Son and of the holy spirit.
There are many scholars, both trinitarian and non-trinitarian, who claim that Matthew 28:19 has been changed from what Jesus originally said. It is claimed that Jesus originally told his disciples to baptise "in my name", not in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and the Holy Spirit. Noting that Eusebius, who had copies of earlier manuscripts that no longer exist, cites Matthew 28:19 eighteen times always as: "Go and make disciples of all nations in my name," without the mention of "the name" of the Father, and of the Son, and of the holy spirit, some have concluded that Matthew 28:19, as it has come to us, contains a textual corruption.
For instance, in his *Demonstratio Evangelica*, Eusebius gives this testmony concerning the commission of Matthew 28:19 (col. 240, p. 136):
For he did not enjoin them 'to make disciples of all nations' simply and without qualification, but with the essential addition 'in his name.' For so great was the virtue attached to his appellation that the Apostle says, God bestowed on him the name above every name, that in the name of Jesus every knee shall bow of things in heaven and on earth and under the earth. It was right therefore that he should emphasize the virtue of the power residing in his name but hidden from the many, and therefore say to his Apostles, Go ye and make disciples of all nations in my name.
go to part 3.