JFJ Forums

In Judaism, the Hebrew scriptures are considered to be 'inspired'. The format of the scriptures is different then Christianity. The groupings are different.

Translations are for convenience and learning but not considered inspired.


The Septuagint was originally only the 5 books of Moses or the Torah. According to the story of the translation, the 70 Rabbis were forced to translate for the Alexandrian libraries. Further additions were made at a later date but it is unknown who actually translationed any further writings. The books in the Septuagint are not considered canon scripture or inspired by Judaism.

In Judaism there are also the Targums which were Aramaic translations and commentary. The Targums were also commonly read in synagogues for learning but are not considered canon or inspired.

In other words, it is a mistake to think the books in the Septuagint indicate what Judaism would have considered 'canon' or inspired since the Septuagint was never viewed as inspired or on the same level as the Torah, Neviim, Ketuvim, or the Mishnah, etc. The Septuagint is just a translation of a bunch of Jewish writings.    

Thank you for this imput. That is very interesting and explains a lot. Blessings....

Jans, Shalom.

I have to ask this:  Your last, in red above, for some reason jumped out at me as a degrading reference to Torah.  I'm sure you didn't intend that conveyance, and I may be the only person to have received your words as such.  I hope so.  

I understand Torah to be His 'dictated' words to Moshi, all five books, and the rest of Tanach, and NT to be 'inspired.'  

I just felt I had to bring your attention to what I received in my heart.

In Messiah's service, His Shalom.  Arley

I agree and Judaism agrees that the Torah is Gods words dictated to Moses.

But the view in Judaism is the Torah is written in Hebrew, not Greek. The Sefer Torah, which is unpointed Hebrew is meticulously copied by hand by trained scribes with all kinds of checks to insure its accuracy and each letter is properly written, Hebrew letter by Hebrew letter, because it is the dictated words of God.

The view of the Septuagint in Judaism is that it was not dictated by God. It is a translation made by men. When the translated writings in Greek are grouped with other translated writings, they are essentially a bunch of Jewish writings, not necessarily compiled by Jewish people or scribes. The translated Torah in the Septuagint was not viewed as 'Dictated by God'. It is grouped with other Jewish writings which are not viewed as inspired in the Greek.

It is a different distinction.

The Chumash, (also the 5 Books of Moses) which is written in Hebrew, and pointed with vowels, is used for study. Care is taken because it contains the Holy Name, but it is not treated the same as a Kosher Sefer Torah.

I just wanted to add to my previous post hopefully for a clearer explanation.

The Septuagint would not be a good indicator of what was considered Canon Scripture in Judaism, because the Septuagint is not held to the same high level as inspired scripture in Judaism.

The view in Judaism towards the Septuagint, as a translation, would be more like a study book for the convenience of those who were not fluent in Hebrew, which would allow other 'non-canonized' writings of interest to be added. This is the same as the Targums in Aramaic which are 'study guides' but not considered inspired like scripture.

In Judaism, the Torah scroll, is hand written on parchment, using fountain pens by trained scribes, and verified meticulously. This is the dictated words of God, letter for letter. The Sefer Torah is held in high regard.

Thank you Jans, I had not considered the direction of reason you were using, when I saw your words.  The Septuagint became the 'bunch of words,' as related to Torah, since the Hebraic expression cannot be translated outside the Hebrew language.  Is that what I am hearing you say?  If so, then I understand your intent, and soundly agree.  Thanks for the clarification.

In Messiah's service, His Shalom.  Arley

Close to what I'm trying to say.

It is incorrect to use the Septuagint to say that Judaism once accepted all those books as Canon scripture. Since the Septuagint is not considered inspired by Judaism, Judaism did not  preserve the Septuagint. It is a translation made by man so non-canonical writings can and were added to the Septuagint as a compilation of various Jewish writings.  

I do agree that the Torah, in its original form is the words of God dictated to Moses, in Hebrew. This is what is held in Judaism as Canon scripture, and preserved to the best effort, held in high regard.

I do agree translations are not word for word perfect. I also believe that for those who have the Holy Spirit as the Teacher, even though they are using a translation,  they do not necessarily miss out on the intended meaning of the Author. In other words, it is not necessary to know Hebrew to understand scripture since scripture is spiritual and must be understood spiritually. Also, being fluent in Hebrew doesn't guarantee a spiritual understanding of scripture.

I notice translation hebrew can be really tough do to the lanuguage if you write one letter to small or to big of strokes a very different meaning can come.

First, I’d like to point out that not all Jews consider the Hebrew scriptures as the only inspired scriptures.  The Ethiopian Jews to this day still consider the deuterocanonical books as inspired.

Second, there were many Jewish writings that were NOT included in the Septuagint but were read in assembly.  This shows that some form of discernment was used to determine what should be included in the Septuagint and what should not.

We are in complete agreement on the contents of the Torah and mostly in agreement on the Prophets.  But again, there is absolutely no evidence that pre-Christian Judaism did, or even should have considered the cessation of God’s revelation through prophets.  There simply was no “canon” of scripture at the time nor any reason to consider a closed canon.  This is why the translators from Hebrew to Greek continued their work and why the Tanakh was not “closed”.

Jesus Christ and his disciples were the new prophets and their writings, accepted by this new Jewish “sect”, were rejected by the Pharisees.  It was only due to the rise of this “renegade sect” of followers of Rabbi Yeshua that the Pharisees saw a need to establish a canon and this would certainly have influenced their decisions.  It is well known historical fact that the Septuagint was in widespread use by the Christian community.  Along with the writings of the followers of Rabbi Yeshua, any other books used by Christians, including the deuterocanonicals, were rejected by the Council of Javneh.

But if non-Messianic and non-Christian Judaism hold the so-called "she’bal peh" (Oral "Torah"); why can't they hold to the Septuagint, which was translated from the "Sefer Torah", the written Torah and rest of the Tanakh?