Hello Friends,
My name is Henry Allan Parker or H.A. Parker for short. I'm quite new to this site but nevertheless will I make an attempt for discussion with Jesus being the real messiah. Though I'm not Jewish myself, I want an adequate reason how Isaiah 53 has be "mistranslated" by the Christians and it brings a totally different read in favor of the nation of Israel for all of this suffering. To be honest, I surely don't believe how the accusation could amount to it. Care to explain?
Parker
For starters, when have Jews ever deemed Jesus as sub-human, or cursed by God? It says by his wounds or suffering, people are healed. But you believe that belief in his death heals, not his suffering - else he wouldn't have needed to die. At the end of the chapter, spoils are divided between this servant and others. How does that relate to Jesus? It also says in verse 10 that this servant has children. Jesus didn't have children.
Do you agree that each and every verse - with every single word in Isaiah 52:13-53:12 must be related to Jesus and if not, then Jesus cannot be the servant of Isaiah 53?
I believe each and every verse - with each and every word within Isa 52:13-53:12 does relate to the righteous of Israel. How about you?
For starters, when have Jews ever deemed Jesus as sub-human, or cursed by God?
In the Jewish Perspective he was.
It says by his wounds or suffering, people are healed.
He died for the world.
But you believe that belief in his death heals, not his suffering - else he wouldn't have needed to die. At the end of the chapter, spoils are divided between this servant and others. How does that relate to Jesus? It also says in verse 10 that this servant has children. Jesus didn't have children.
Do you agree that each and every verse - with every single word in Isaiah 52:13-53:12 must be related to Jesus and if not, then Jesus cannot be the servant of Isaiah 53?
I agree with it. I think the same shall go for those who believe the idea of the nation of Israel.
I believe each and every verse - with each and every word within Isa 52:13-53:12 does relate to the righteous of Israel. How about you?
Beg to differ. Try looking at the last three verses of Isaiah 53
Parker
1. Where do you have any record of Jews, or anyone else for that matter, thinking or stating that Jesus is/was sub-human? If you find one view, can you then show that most Jews have felt this way historically about Jesus?
I ask because non-Jews have historically seen Jews as being sub-human and cursed by God. The evidence of this is overwhelming. Now I want to see you defend this view for Jesus.
2. How are you healed by his wounds? If his wounds heal, then what good is his death - or belief in his death?
3. How do the last 3 verses eliminate righteous Israel from consideration as the servant? Just reading from Isaiah chapters 59-66, you'll find Jews being blessed with children and long life once we nationally repent (as in Deut 30:1-10), and the end of Isa. 54 speaks of the vindication righteous Israel will have in the end days (as well as chaps 60-66).
There are 2 ways of looking at 'bearing iniquity'. For one, as you know - priests did this in ancient times for all Israelites. In the beginning of Ezekiel 4, we see the prophet doing this for all Israel. Likewise, being a NATION of priests, Israel does this for the laity (the gentile nations). The other way is even more simple. The nations have laid it on pretty thick to the Jews historically, so therefore righteous Israel has suffered due to the iniquity of the nations visited upon Israel.
As for 53:12, material wealth is promised to righteous Israel in Isaiah 60-66 as a reward for their suffering. And Jews have never ceased making intercession by praying for their host nations in any of our exiles (see Jer. 29:7).
How does material wealth in 53:12 pertain to Jesus? Where do we find Jesus being promised children and longer life as it says in 53:10? This promise of children and life is something the Torah promises over and over again as a blessing to Jews who follow the commandments.
In Isaiah, we read"
41:21 “Produce your cause and present your plea, says HASHEM, present your sturdiest and strongest reasons / your best points of argument, says the King of Jacob.”
41:28. And I looked to see and saw that there was not a man; and of these there was not a Counselor so that / in order that I might ask them, and they could answer in a word.
42:23. Who among you will listen (and let these words sink down in your ears), hearkening to this? He will silently incline, hear, and be obedient toward that time that is yet to be.
(In regards to Isaiah 43:23, Rashi states to the effect that every L’achor (lamed-alef-het-yod-rosh) is a future tense that deals with something that is destined as yet to be. )
Achor means to the West, as seeing the back of hinder part. in the Garden of Eden, when the VOICE of HASHEM walked in the cool of the day, he moved in a Westerly direction (away from Adam who probably faced East).
When HASHEM passed by Moses in the Cleft of the Rock, He did so in such a way that Moses saw His afterglow; then, HASHEM ascended in a Westerly direction.
When Jesus was crucified at the Kidron and Hinom Valley, He faced in a westerly direction, while the metal appendage of the Cross on its rear joint appeared as a nose, and represented dead Adam facing east.
The future event of contention, would be Christ -- HASHEM crucified.
The crucifixion isn't confined solely to the Servant of Isa.52 & 53. In examining every occurence of Servant from chapter 42 to 53, there is a clear ability of Scripture to distinguish between when it implies Israel the nation and the Messhiach Servant who is to come. This same Servant Messiah who is of David's lineage (Jer. 33:21-22,26; Eze. 34:23-24, 37:24-25; Zech. 3:8)
Jesus had cheeks that had the hair plucked off by the Romans, as between 400 - 600 Romans lined up and smote one blow each with the open palm. As the palm strikes, fingers can get tangled in Jesus' beard, especially if it was curly. Scripture tells us that he would only be allowed one eye opened at the Cross, hence the number of blows and the amount of swelling for Isaiah 52:14.
In Isaiah 50:6, we see in prophecy that Jesus is like the scapegoat of Yom Kippur, who has his "beard" and hair clump protrusions yanked by the Babylonians and Alexandrians as it walks along the platform bridge and out of the city…for the Romans descended from and traded with both these ancient peoples through their Hyksos Aramaic (cf. Rephaim/Nephilim) lineage. But anything that is contained in history to confirm Yeshua is shoved aside by the rabbinate, lest you who are sons and daughters of Israel should believe into Him -- and that Isaiah 45:15 might be fulfilled, "that indeed, You are a G-D who hides Himself, O G-D of Israel, the one who sets free."
It is G-D who has His beard plucked while in the form of human flesh, as YHVeH Messiah, the righteous King...and it is He, who -- like in the form of the man David -- sets free.
HASHEM erases sins for His own sake (Isaiah 43:25). The rabbinates and priesthoods were inclined to spoil and rob, not walk in HASHEM's ways, not be obedient unto His laws (Isaiah 42:24). They lead the flock of Israel astray, and are blamed for it (Jeremiah 23:1ff.). That astray teaching is about mamon/wealth (Psalm 49:6-14). The rabbis reach, not for us is the teaching that it is harder for a rich man to attain Heaven than to have a camel go through a needle's eye...for we see wealth as the means of a ladder to righteousness (or words to this effect). The same was reflected in the theology of the Apostles as they were being re-educated by Christ. He had to bring a realignment (as demonstrated in the Gospels), teaching of where Israel's rabbis had caused Israel to stray and would cause the nation to once again be vomited from the land if they did not heed the words of Jesus.
So it was, at the proper time, the manifest incarnation occurred. Jesus was raised up as the Servant who would bring forth the true grace and mercy of Torah / Instruction to the nations, and it was to be we who receive Him gladly (Isaiah 42:1-4, cf.v.9). Shalom.
Brian,
How does your post address my points in post #4? How are you healed by Jesus' wounds? If his wounds or suffering heals you, what point is there to his death?
Re; Post 6 and Post 4. How is Israel healed when it strikes and beats the escape goat on its way out of the Temple and city of Jerusalem while on its 12 mile trek to be thrown off a cliff? Answer this out of Oral Instruction in the Mishna, and maybe the verse of Isaiah may open for you after the Christian interpretation you deny.
Also,
in Daniel 9:24...within 70 weeks...within 490 years...there must occur certain happenings:
An END of Sins
Reconciliation For Iniquity
Bringing in of Everlasting Righteousness (i.e., HASHEM Messhiach)
The Anointing of the Most Holy (HASHEM Messhiach).
[size=small] We are given a very tight and specific timeline by "Scripture" which contradicts later rabbinic interpretations seeking to over-ride clear and plain sense passages...which do so for only one purpose...to deny their Messhiach Yeshua of Nazareth...who like Jonah, was a prophet from Galilee. But unlike Jonah, The Master of David the King -- who came to Earth to also be called David's Son...as it is written in the Psalms.
So if we believe into Jesus for our healings, as the woman with the blood issue who grasped Jesus' tallit, or those blind or maimed or healed, when as yet he had NOT been arrested - abused - crucified ...when do we believe into Jesus for healings of body versus healings of sins?
In Ezra 3:3-6, the faith is presented to the area of the altar...even as when the Temple was not yet built. In the case of Jesus...we place it ALL at the Cross, while He is yet alive in human form, shredded in flesh - in shock from blood loss - and naked, hanging - freezing from the cold - and quivering. We place it at this "Pesach" altar on Olivet, outside the walls of Jerusalem, at the Kidron and Hinom Valley Juncture.
We continually yank the hair, and spit, and beat, and poke His Escape-goat body throughout time. We burn the cross as if the heifer or bullock with hatred and variance. We offer up His deadened hands like turtle-doves and pigeons. His body is ground as wheat, to be an offering without leaven, as teruma (as a wave offering of grain) unto G-D. Every Temple sacrifice is seen in allegory into Christ...in some way...every one. And yet, His words are: "Forgive them, Father; they know not what they do." And we know and yet know not, for we all sin unto our dying day...and it can't be stopped, only slowed down greatly.
The Escape Goat removes sin without the camp, and the true atonement happens where? Outside the camp...for even Mishna tells you of the observance of the thread upon the horn to the moment the goat is cast off the cliff -- lest there be a rejection of Israel's atonement. Therefore... Sin, for all Israel and the world, on Yom Kippur, is truly atoned outside the camp.
For this type outside atonement is confirmed even with the Red Heifer, which cleanses all, but is burned where? On Olivet. If this is so...then so think of Christ "who makes an end of sins, and a reconciliation for iniquity, etc." He suffered, layed down His life -- but was slain / cut off -- outside the Siloam Gate (the gate of Living Waters, that once were by the stairs leading up to Zion -- a type of Beth-El unto us). Shalom.
Re; Post 6 and Post 4. How is Israel healed when it strikes and beats the escape goat on its way out of the Temple and city of Jerusalem while on its 12 mile trek to be thrown off a cliff? Answer this out of Oral Instruction in the Mishna, and maybe the verse of Isaiah may open for you after the Christian interpretation you deny.
Brian,
Maybe you should explain this to me because I don't see the clear parallel to Jesus with the YK scapegoat. According to the written Torah, only the release of the scapegoat into the wilderness atoned. It's death is never called for in the written Torah. And as far as I know, no one calls Jesus a goat, but rather a lamb. Yet another weak type-and-shadow parallel that doesn't quite work.
If Jesus's wounds or suffering heals, then his death is unnecessary. This seems to be what Isaiah is teaching.
Brian,
Your problem with Daniel 9 is that 2 annointeds are spoken of. Even Dr. Brown admits the 490 years is really around 600 years. Since Cyrus is undoubtedly the first annointed (see Isaiah 44-45), this places Jesus over 100 years out of the prophecy.
Most problematic for your view here is that the 2nd annointed being cut-off runs concurrently at the same time as the destruction of the Temple. The very last high-priest (who was annointed by Jewish law) was cut-off at that time. Jesus died about 40 years earlier (or 5 weeks). I fail to see the perfect "fit".
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